For a group project in one of my university IT classes, each group is given 3 servers and the professor wants us to get an Apache CloudStack environment running using those three. While initially vague on instructions, he later informed us that we should install the ESXi hypervisor on all 3 of our servers and go from there.
We first installed ESXi on all 3 of our servers. Then we installed vCenter server on one of them in order to combine all the computing resources by adding each as a host in a cluster before we start setting up CloudStack. What we are about to do next is install the CloudStack Management server on a VM created in vCenter server.
I was reading the CloudStack documentation before we start the installation which is where my question stems from. The documentation mentions that a host should not have any running VMs on them before getting added to CloudStack. Here is the exact text:
Ideally clusters that will be managed by CloudStack should not contain any other VMs. Do not run the management server or vCenter on the cluster that is designated for CloudStack use. Create a separate cluster for use of CloudStack and make sure that they are no VMs in this cluster.
So my question is, does that include the management server VM? If it does, would that mean we have to make a separate cluster for just the host server that contains the management server? Cause if that's the case, we can't use any of the other resources on that server that is running the management server. Or does it mean that you can but it's just not recommended?
On top of that, the documentation also mentions the following:
Put all target ESXi hypervisors in dedicated clusters in a separate Datacenter in vCenter. So would I have to put the ESXi host containing vCenter Server and CloudStack Management Server in both a separate datacenter and cluster?
