I have used an object property O
to relate Class A
with Class B
. I also have instance a
and b
of classes A
and B
respectively. I have used the same object property O
to relate the instances a
and b
.
Again, I have used the same object property O
to link a
with c
, where c
is an instance of Class C
which is not linked with class A
or B
using any object property.
Reasoners are still showing that the Ontology is Consistent.
My question is "Should this not be marked as inconsistent by the reasoners? Please enlighten me regarding your answer, whether the answer is 'Yes' or 'No' and the reason behind your answer"?
Thanks in advance.