Let's assume we have such variant of Modus Ponens
lemma invDed: ‹(A-->B)==>(A==>B)›
apply(rule mp)
apply assumption
apply assumption
done
Can it be applied for proving the theorem? (I mean A:=A, B:=A, and A-->A we use as if it was previously proved)
lemma myid2: "A==>A"
If not, why? I know several other ways to prove this theorem("apply assumption" or 5-step proof from Frege's propositional calculus axioms.), but I interested in this nuance of proof mechanics.
i have one rule, now I want obtain an another [admissible] rule, what's problem?