Let's say you are developing a client side JavaScript SPA app (Angular), a backend API for this app (ASP.NET Core in my case) and you use an identity provider that implements Open ID Connect protocol (I'm using IdentityServer4).
Apparently the recommended way for securing the app is to use the OIDC implicit flow between the JavaScript app and the identity provider and if successful the JavaScript app gets an id token and an access token.
Now according to this documentation the JavaScript app is supposed to pass the access token in the headers whenever it calls the API. And I'm not sure what purpose does the id token serve in this case (besides customizing the UI in your JavaScript app)?
But this is the confusing part: The documentation also says you should never use the access token for authentication. But that is the token that my API receives in the request headers, how can it authenticate the user then? If my API receives Post(newRecord)
, and the API needs to internally fix some audit information on newRecord
(i.e newRecord.CreatedBy = CurrentUsername
), how can it do that without authenticating the caller??
I think I'm missing a piece of the puzzle. Please any help is deeply appreciated.