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I want a database user to have ALTER and EXECUTE permissions to a stored procedure. Do I need to grant those separately, or does granting ALTER allow the user to EXECUTE also?

e.g. 

GRANT ALTER ON [STOREDPROC] TO [SP_USER];

GRANT EXECUTE ON [STOREDPROC] TO [SP_USER];

or just: 

GRANT ALTER ON [STOREDPROC] TO [SP_USER];

(does ALTER imply EXECUTE?)

Thanks!

marc_s
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Nancy R-I
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  • `Execute` permission is given on a stored procedure not on a table. – M.Ali Sep 04 '15 at 20:08
  • oops - yes, not TABLE, SP - do you know if ALTER is enough or I have to grant EXECUTE also? – Nancy R-I Sep 04 '15 at 20:10
  • No you would need to give Execute permission too, if you want user to be able to execute the procedure, Alter will only allow user to alter procedure. – M.Ali Sep 04 '15 at 20:16

1 Answers1

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The short answer is: no, ALTER does not imply EXECUTE.

Slightly longer answer: there's a chart that says what permissions imply other permissions. Check it out!

https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms188371.aspx

Ben Thul
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