Initially I modeled my objective function as follows:
argmin var(f(x),g(x))+var(c(x),d(x))
where f,g,c,d are linear functions
in order to be able to use linear solvers I modeled the problem as follows
argmin abs(f(x),g(x))+abs(c(x),d(x))
is it correct to change variance to absolute value in this context, I'm pretty sure they imply the same meaning as having the least difference between two functions
You haven't given enough context to answer the question. Even though your question doesn't seem to be about regression, in many ways it is similar to the question of choosing between least squares and least absolute deviations approaches to regression. If that term in your objective function is in any sense an error term then the most appropriate way to model the error depends on the nature of the error distribution. Least squares is better if there is normally distributed noise. Least absolute deviations is better in the nonparametric setting and is less sensitive to outliers. If the problem has nothing to do with probability at all then other criteria need to be brought in to decide between the two options.
Having said all this, the two ways of measuring distance are broadly similar. One will be fairly small if and only if the other is -- though they won't be equally small. If they are similar enough for your purposes then the fact that absolute values can be linearized could be a good motivation to use it. On the other hand -- if the variance-based one is really a better expression of what you are interested in then the fact that you can't use LP isn't sufficient justification to adopt absolute values. After all -- quadratic programming is not all that much harder than LP, at least below a certain scale.
To sum up -- they don't imply the same meaning, but they do imply similar meanings; and, whether or not they are similar enough depends upon your purposes.
