any expert could help me why this sentence is True?
if L ∈ NP and L ≤p 3−SAT (i.e: reduce L to 3-SAT in poly time) then L is NP-Complete.
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tsnorri
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3I'm voting to close this question as off-topic because it is not a programming problem. Try http://cs.stackexchange.com. – Oliver Charlesworth Feb 14 '15 at 15:41
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This statement is false. Since 3SAT is NP-complete, every problem in NP polynomial-time reduces to 3SAT, so if you choose any language in NP, then it will polynomial-time reduce to 3SAT. In particular, if you choose the empty language ∅, which is known not to be NP-complete, then ∅ ∈ NP and ∅ reduces toe 3SAT, but ∅ isn't NP-complete.
Hope this helps!
templatetypedef
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Could you take a look at my question? http://stackoverflow.com/questions/29706726/reduction-to-clique-prob – Mary Star Apr 18 '15 at 10:53