I know that 3-SAT is polynomially reducable to INDEPENDENT-SET problem. Now is an INDEPENDENT-SET problem polynomially reducable to 3-SAT problem ? Thus are these problems polynomially equivalent?
I think it is, as every instance of INDEPENDENT-SET problem according to me can be represented in 3-SAT ( in some cases after adding a few extra edges ). However I am not clear about this understanding of mine.
Please help me our here.