In most of classifications (e.g. logistic / linear regression) the bias term is ignored while regularizing. Will we get better classification if we don't regularize the bias term?
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Example:
Y = aX + b
Regularization is based on the idea that overfitting on Y
is caused by a
being "overly specific", so to speak, which usually manifests itself by large values of a
's elements.
b
merely offsets the relationship and its scale therefore is far less important to this problem. Moreover, in case a large offset is needed for whatever reason, regularizing it will prevent finding the correct relationship.
So the answer lies in this: in Y = aX + b
, a
is multiplied with the explanatory/independent variable, b
is added to it.

Def_Os
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Why do you call `X` "explaining variable"? Is there some reference? thanks. – CyberPlayerOne Jun 25 '18 at 05:43
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@Tyler提督九门步军巡捕五营统领, more commonly `X` would be referred to as the ["dependent variable"](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dependent_and_independent_variables). – Def_Os Jun 28 '18 at 21:00
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1@Def_Os, no, in this terminology `X` would be the _independent_ variable, and `Y` is the dependent one (`Y` depends on `X`). In response to @Tyler's question, the linked article mentions "explanatory variable" as a synonym for independent variable. – wjakobw Oct 18 '18 at 13:58