Is the conjugate of an integer partition, selected at random from the set of all partitions for n, also a uniform random sample? My results suggest yes, which is encouraging for the sake of quickly generating random partitions of n that are of length s, but I can't explain why that should or shouldn't be.
By the way, my results are based on 1.) generating all partitions for a small n (<70) of a specific length (s) 2.) calculating the variance of each partition as a macrostate descriptor and 3.) comparing the kernel density curve for the variance across the entire feasible set (all partitions for n of length s) against small random samples (i.e. <500 randomly generated partitions of n whose lengths either match s or whose conjugate lengths match s). Kernel density curves for random samples closely match the curve for the entire feasible set (i.e. all partitions of n matching s). This visually illustrates that random samples, the majority of which are conjugate partitions, capture the distribution of variance among partitions of the n and s based feasible set. I just can't explain why it should work as it appears to do; downfall of making a creative leap.
Note: Many other procedures for producing random samples yield a clearly biased sample (i.e. a differently shaped and highly non-overlapping kernel density curve).