2

According to RebelNews, Canadian MP Anthony Housefather said

It's because these documents were signed at the beginning of the pandemic when everybody was desperate for vaccines, when companies were being told to rush vaccine production, do testing in an unprecedented way, a way they normally don't do it.

So these companies were exposed to way higher liability putting their products on the market on the market than they normally would because they didn't do the type of testing that normally takes these drugs years to come to market. They did it all in less than a year.

So that's why these companies said, ‘if I'm going to deliver you this product that I haven't tested in my normal way, I want to have different conditions’. And with countries all around the world competing with each other to get these, the countries had less leverage than they normally do.

The last sentence (after the emphasized one) can easily be checked out to be true, e.g. some of the EU countries did that according to a "Special report [on] EU COVID-19 vaccine procurement":

The Commission and Member States considered early introduction of the vaccine to be in the interest of public health. Member States were therefore willing to reduce manufacturers’ risks linked to liability for adverse effects. This was intended as a risk-sharing principle in the vaccine strategy. While respecting the general principle of liability under the Product Liability Directive, the provisions in the contracts concluded with COVID-19 vaccine manufacturers differ from the pre-pandemic practice as Member States have taken over some of the financial risks normally assumed by the vaccine manufacturers.

What remains in a bit of doubt is if the highlighted sentence (in the 1st quote) was the main reason invoked by manufacturers during negotiations in asking for reduced liability, rather than being a more subtle allusion, which e.g. Reuters quotes the manufacturers association as being rather more vague in public:

The industry trading body, Vaccines Europe, said it was working with relevant authorities to agree a system of compensation that would avoid “endless delays through prohibitively expensive litigation with uncertain outcomes”. [...]

The EU stance on liabilities could partly explain why, despite having a bigger population than the United States, it is lagging Washington in securing potential COVID-19 vaccines.

The U.S. system shifts liability for vaccines fully to the government and shields drugmakers because widespread inoculation against disease is considered a benefit to society.

So, is there more direct evidence that's what the vaccine companies said in negotiations, i.e. they explicitly invoked the testing schedule as a reason (as opposed to e.g. making a comparison with other jurisdictions)?

Fizz
  • 57,051
  • 18
  • 175
  • 291
  • According to my health insurance there were differences in US/GB (emergency approval) compared to EU (conditional approval). I imagine negotiations to be quite different between those. – npst Feb 28 '23 at 11:31
  • 1
    Note that *having reduced liability* and *actually causing harm* are two different things. In practice the vaccines were extremely safe, even if they did have an extra layer of lawsuit mitigation. Still doesn't justify the mandates but important to call out. – JonathanReez Feb 28 '23 at 19:06
  • 1
    I feel like this question is confusing 3 different jurisdictions: Canada (whom Anthony Housefather is a representative), the US (discussed at the end of the 3rd quote), and the EU (and, indeed, probably each EU state has its own laws/regulations as well). Can you focus or separate your comments on each of these 3 jurisdictions? It seems the claim you want to verify is concerning Canada's case, so I'm not sure why discussions of the other 2 are relevant. As npst said above, negotiations in the EU are not binding in Canada, and vice-versa. – Ertai87 Feb 28 '23 at 19:10
  • @Ertai87: well, if it can be documented in more detail that the vaccine mfg said those things in *any* of those regions I'd be satisfied, in sense of this Q. In some sense I'm lowering the bar. – Fizz Feb 28 '23 at 19:13
  • @Ertai87: also, Canada despite not having any manufacturing of its own for those, basically managed to secure [more](https://www.bbc.com/news/world-us-canada-56035306) vaccines per capita than most of those countries. So clearly they gave the manufacturers something in return. The question is what... i.e. if the reduced liability was part of the deal and if it's really the mfg who pressed for it. It is convenient for the Can gov't to claim that... – Fizz Feb 28 '23 at 19:19
  • I see that's what you said in your final sentence, but it would help if you made it more explicit. – Ertai87 Feb 28 '23 at 19:19
  • 1
    @Fizz Not to derail the conversation because this isn't your question, but this article might be enlightening as to why Canada got more vaccines per capita: https://www.ctvnews.ca/health/coronavirus/canada-spent-24m-on-covid-19-vaccines-received-in-january-statcan-1.5335083 . If you pay 1.5-2x more than your competitors in the bidding war, then you tend to win. – Ertai87 Feb 28 '23 at 19:21
  • [Politico](https://www.politico.eu/article/europe-coronavirus-vaccine-struggle-pfizer-biontech-astrazeneca/) has a good description of what happened in the EU. It is not quite as simple as the EU having to coordinate 27 countries, wanting regulatory approval, liability carried by the manufacturers and a low price resulting in cheaper vaccines delivered later than the US, UK and others, but there were elements of that. – Henry Feb 28 '23 at 23:18
  • Isn't this essentially asking whether an industry group tried to lobby a government to ease some regulatory rules just this once because it is a special situation? I feel industry groups ask for that all the time for all kinds of good and bad reasons. So 'did they ask?' is not a good question, of course they did. This just happens to be a situation where they actually had a case and got some special rules which you quoted. – quarague Mar 02 '23 at 09:25

0 Answers0