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Many sources indicate that there is a law on the books in Michigan requiring a married woman to get her husband's permission before cutting her own hair.

According to the Huffington Post article The Craziest Laws That Still Exist In The United States, citing "The good folks over at Olivet Nazarene University":

Michigan: It is illegal for women to cut their own hair without their husband's permission.

The article above uses a page at Olivet Nazarene University as a source, but that page simply states the same assertion. It provides a generic list of sources (including several generic "crazy law" pages), but doesn't indicate which source, if any, applies to the hair cut law.

Rob Sparks at radio station Mix 95.7 WLHT-FM, Grand Rapids, MI, claims:

Apparently, ladies can’t cut their hair unless they have their husband’s permission to do so.

Likewise, Vera Hogan, in her article "The ‘dumbest’ laws in Michigan" from the Tri-County Times of Fenton, MI claims,

A woman isn’t allowed to cut her own hair without her husband’s permission.

Is it actually illegal for a married woman to cut her own hair in Michigan without her husband's permission?

If this is an actual law, where is it codified and what is the penalty?

  • Is unauthorized self-haircutting by a wife a misdemeanor?
  • Is it a felony?
  • Is this actually a professional regulatory law against anyone other than licensed beauticians giving themselves a haircut (unauthorized practice of cosmetology) and whether the offender is a woman or married is an irrelevant detail?
  • Is it not a criminal offense, but a civil cause for a fault divorce by her husband? ("Your honor, I request a divorce and full custody of our children on the basis that Mrs. Dumbface trimmed some of her split ends while I was drunk at the bar and incapable of consenting to her haircut. I also want 90% of her father's inheritance as a punishment for her bad behavior kthxbai.")
Robert Columbia
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    I looked into other claims from the Olivet Nazarene University and there are other unsupported ones. Some are not that "crazy" when you think about it. For example, in Massachussetts, "It is illegal to own an explosive golf ball." Strictly speaking, that's not true. "Whoever manufactures or sells or knowingly uses, or has in possession for the purpose of sale, any golf ball containing any acid, fluid, gas or other substance tending to cause the ball to explode and to inflict bodily injury... " [MA law](https://malegislature.gov/Laws/GeneralLaws/Parti/Titlexx/Chapter148/Section55) – Barry Harrison May 02 '21 at 02:01
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    Many of those "laws" are not "laws"; instead, there has been one specific case where a court's decision became case law. The "there is a law that says X" claims omit the specific facts and should rather be worded "There has been a case where X, in combination with Y and Z, and absence of A, B, and C, led to the decision that ...:". – Guntram Blohm May 02 '21 at 11:09
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    @GuntramBlohm also, some originate in horribly mangled statutes taken out of context, such as a real law requiring public school lunch programs to purchase milk from local farmers turns into a claimed total ban on children drinking imported milk under penalty of catapult. – Robert Columbia May 02 '21 at 11:22
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    I wouldn't count on it. Michigan law is not some patchwork quilt of random laws that haven't changed in 150 years. It's organized in chapters, and the legislature has periodically done a total review and rewrite of each chapter, modernizing, purging, folding in case law, etc. – Harper - Reinstate Monica May 02 '21 at 21:50
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    @Harper-ReinstateMonica: I dunno; https://www.mlive.com/lansing-news/2015/12/michigan_scraps_old_laws_banni.html definitely leaves me with the sense that there may yet be weird old Michigan laws out there waiting to be repealed . . . – ruakh May 03 '21 at 06:44
  • Just as a data point - women until 2015 were not allowed to wear pants in Paris. It was an actual decree and was abolished in 2015 (https://international.laws.com/international-news/pants-no-longer-technically-illegal-for-women-in-paris-36508.html). – WoJ May 03 '21 at 11:48

3 Answers3

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The claim is false. For at least 171 years (93%) of Michigan's 184 year existence, married women in Michigan have NOT needed their husband's permission to do anything to their hair. Since 1850, the Michigan constitution has stated a woman's property, whether acquired before or after marriage, remains her property. (Michigan became a state in 1837.) While it's debatable whether hair is personal property, the 1850 constitution and subsequent statutes "disavow a legal worldview in which one could imagine that a woman would require a man's permission to cut her hair."


There are variants of this claim that state "A woman’s hair is her husband’s legal property in Michigan." or "A state law stipulates that a woman's hair legally belongs to her husband." Another website went further to put both variants of this claim together:

  • A Michigan law states that a wife's hair legally belongs to her husband.
  • A woman isn't allowed to cut her own hair without her husband's permission.

My guess is the first statement, which most likely was never even true, led to the second statement.

A 1981 Michigan law strongly implies a wife's hair does not legally belong to her husband: A woman's "real or personal property" acquired before or after marriage "is and shall remain the property of the woman and be a part of the woman's estate." It would make sense, then, that a woman can cut her own hair without her husband's permission.

In 1981, the same Michigan law repealed a statute from 1855 titled "Rights of Married Women." @Quuxplusone very nicely found the 1855 law here as "An Act relative to the rights of married women" (thanks!). The first 2 sections are substantially the same and, again, a woman's property "shall be and remain the estate and property" of the woman. This 1855 law became effective immediately and doesn't reference an even earlier law. Michigan became a state in 1837, so it's possible this is the first Michigan law that references women's rights and a woman's property.

Even earlier, Michigan had adopted an 1850 Constitution that gave women the same rights to their property:

The real and personal estate of every female, acquired before marriage, and all property to which she may afterwards become entitled, by gift, grant, inheritance or devise, shall be and remain the estate and property of such female, and shall not be liable for the debts, obligations or engagements of her husband, and may be devised or bequeathed by her as if she were unmarried.

Michigan's earliest 1835 Constitution does not mention property, except that if it's taken from someone for public use, they must be justly compensated. (Fun fact: Michigan created a permanent State Supreme Court in 1857, 7 years after women's properties were explicitly protected in the 1850 Constitution.)

I asked about hair as personal property on Law.SE. @ohwilleke answered that "Hair is not personally property until it is removed from your body." However, the statutes "essentially put married women on equal footing with single adult women in terms of property ownership and legal status" and "more generally, disavow a legal worldview in which one could imagine that a woman would require a man's permission to cut her hair, although [the claim] is almost surely just an urban myth. Pre-1850, the government in Michigan, which was basically on the frontier at the time, was just too weak to maintain that kind of control over people."

For at least 171 years of Michigan's 184-year-long existence (~93%), Michigan laws has recognized the equal footing of married women, suggesting there was never a law that married women need their husband's permission to get a haircut. I haven't found anything that suggests a woman's property ever becomes her husband's.


There are many other websites citing attorneys practicing in Michigan who say such a law doesn't exist.

Justia:

While laws like this may have existed in the past, I did a brief search of Michigan statutes currently in effect and it doesn't appear as if this conduct is currently prohibited in Michigan.

― Attorney Nick Leydorf

A Michigan Fox station:

I think that is a myth regarding the cutting of the hair, we actually looked that one up, it's one people commonly say, I don't think we were able to find that one.

― Attorney Daniel Mead


The question also asked "Is this actually a professional regulatory law against anyone other than licensed beauticians giving themselves a haircut (unauthorized practice of cosmetology) and whether the offender is a woman or married is an irrelevant detail?"

There is a Michigan law that states:

... an individual shall not perform any form of cosmetology services, with or without compensation, on any individual other than a member of his or her immediate family without a license under this article.

So individuals who aren't licensed and aren't an immediate family member cannot give another person a haircut, whether the other person is a woman or is married.


Trying to track down the source of the claim, it seems it first originated from joke books/humor collections. I don't know/want to just assume what that says about the credibility of the claim.

The absolute earliest I've confirmed the claim is on February 9, 1999. Here, the claim is attributed as "from the book "Loony Laws" by Robert Pelton." The url ends with "lighter/silly.htm," which may or may not indicate the seriousness of the claim.

This led me to search for any connection between Robert Pelton and this claim. The earliest I've found the claim directly associated with him in a publication is on March 2000 in an issue of Boys' Life (now Scout Life):

In Michigan, a woman isn't allowed to cut her own hair without her husband's permission.

This article includes quotes from Robert Pelton, though it does not directly attribute the law to him. (I cannot read or search his book directly.)

Later, by October 2020, there was an easily searchable version of the law online in a self-described "humor collection" with exactly the same wording:

In Michigan, a woman isn't allowed to cut her own hair without her husband's permission.

The contributions are attributed to "VEKARIA S (S.Vekaria@CITY.AC.UK)." If the website is to be trusted, the last update was on March 4, 2000, so the claim was added by March 2000.

Finally, this old-fashioned looking website has several supposed US laws, including the claim, in another humor collection.

It's only later that the claim began to appear in more mainstream sites. This April 7, 2004 article is the earliest news article I've found with the claim.

I have already emailed some people in an attempt to track the claim's origin, which is a still ongoing search. I will update if I find something.

Barry Harrison
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    I expect that the 1855 law is [here](https://books.google.com/books?id=Hld_R9jmG3oC&pg=PA1477) — "An Act relative to the rights of married women," approved 1855-02-13, published in _Public and Local Acts of the Legislature of the State of Michigan_ (1872), Volume II, Title XXVIII. It doesn't say anything about hair. In fact, even if hair somehow counted as property, it seems mostly concerned with making sure the husband _can't_ unilaterally take the wife's personal property (nor be forced to assume her personal debts). – Quuxplusone May 02 '21 at 05:49
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    @Barry Harrison: This answer should be modified in light of Quuxplusone's discovery to be a more emphatic "No evidence supports this claim". None of the mentioned sources are reliable, several efforts to locate or identify the relevant law have come up empty. – sondra.kinsey May 02 '21 at 13:50
  • @Quuxplusone Great find! Thanks for sharing that! – Barry Harrison May 02 '21 at 15:26
  • Thanks @sondra.kinsey for the comment! I have edited the answer to include not only that, but Michigan's 1850 constitution, which also refutes the claim. – Barry Harrison May 02 '21 at 15:27
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    The 1855 law partly repealed common law's *coverture* (the pooling of a married woman's possessions under her husband's rule) for the woman's separate estate and granted her contractual powers (only) "as relate to her own property" (West vs. Laraway, 28 Mich. 464, 465 (1880)). That may be the actual source of this myth: *Unless she had her own money she could not legally enter a contract.* While the law probably targeted real estate and other forms of capital it may have generally regulated business dealings of married women -- including haircuts. – Peter - Reinstate Monica May 03 '21 at 10:35
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    So it's pretty well debunked that such a law ever existed *in Michigan* - is there any chance it existed somewhere else and just became wrongly associated with Michigan for some reason? – Darrel Hoffman May 03 '21 at 14:23
  • If I read this right, this answer assumes or implies that a woman's hair is property. Is that reading correct? And if so, is the assumption/implication correct? i.e. Are bodies and (attached) body parts considered property? – ikegami May 03 '21 at 18:08
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    @ikegami I think that's a red herring. My guess is it's the common money. If I understand coverture correctlly, a wife could buy nothing without her husband's (implicit) approval, except with her own money, including services like a haircut. Relying solely on the husband's income was probably more common. – Peter - Reinstate Monica May 03 '21 at 19:17
  • @Peter - Reinstate Monica, That makes a lot more sense, thanks. – ikegami May 03 '21 at 19:33
  • It doesn't seem to me that the purported law is about property rights. Imagine a law that says that a wife can't drive a car without her husband's permission -- that's about controlling activity, not property. – Barmar May 04 '21 at 16:26
  • @Peter-ReinstateMonica I'm not sure if that's the source of the myth. Why is this claim commonly associated with Michigan then? This doesn't explain that. – Barry Harrison May 04 '21 at 20:08
  • @DarrelHoffman I'm not sure. I've seen this law associated with Minnesota sometimes (e.g. https://www.stupidlaws.com/a-woman-isnt-allowed-to-cut-her-own-hair-without-her-husbands-permission/). That might be from confusion between two Midwestern US states that both start with "Mi." I will update the answer based on where I think the claim came from, and am still trying to track that down. – Barry Harrison May 04 '21 at 20:11
  • @ikegami Yes, I am treating a woman's hair as property. I am not a lawyer and dont know if that is absolutely correct. "If the courts were to take a broad view of our property rights in our own bodies, they might hold that statutes banning all contracts for the purchase and sale of body parts constitute takings of private property, just as a statute prohibiting individuals from selling their homes would be a taking. ([first Google search result](https://www.encyclopedia.com/politics/encyclopedias-almanacs-transcripts-and-maps/property-rights-and-human-body))" – Barry Harrison May 04 '21 at 20:15
  • (The dates don't change with @Peter's explanation.) – Barry Harrison May 04 '21 at 20:16
  • @Barry Harrison, Re "*I am not a lawyer and dont know if that is absolutely correct*", Your own quote implies it's not, which would undermine your entire answer. Your entire argument it the hair is not the husband's because the women owned it before the marriage. For that argument, you need to demonstrate the suspicious argument that (attached) hair is subject to property law. Maybe it is, maybe it isn't, but this is a crucial bit missing from your answer. – ikegami May 04 '21 at 20:21
  • @ikegami Sorry what? I've seen arguments that human tissue is personal property. "A Canadian court made headlines this month when it decided, as a preliminary matter, that human tissue removed from the body for diagnostic medical tests is “personal property” that belongs to the hospital where the procedure was performed." (https://theprivacyreport.com/2014/06/11/property-rights-and-the-human-body/) Also, property acquired before or after marriage (if you want to say hair grows) remains the woman's. – Barry Harrison May 04 '21 at 20:24
  • Re "*I've seen arguments that human tissue is personal property.*", Then add them to your answer. I don't know either way. All I know is that the only evidence you have provided said that body parts are not subject to property rights. – ikegami May 04 '21 at 20:25
  • @ikegami Ok, I will do that. – Barry Harrison May 04 '21 at 20:26
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    @ikegami I've asked a question on Law.SE: https://law.stackexchange.com/questions/64722/is-hair-personal-property If hair isn't personal property and coverture is involved instead, it doesn't change that the claim is false and that the timeline in the answer is completely accurate. I believe readers can learn a lot from this answer, so I will keep this up. I could've wrote that it's hard to prove a negative, outlined that I searched MI's database (which I did), cited the 2 lawyers, and left it at that. Instead, I tried to also look at laws not directly mentioning hair, and track the source. – Barry Harrison May 04 '21 at 21:05
  • Strictly-speaking, wouldn't the 1981 law only be applicable to hair that grew before the woman was married? ;-P – Vikki May 04 '21 at 23:24
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    @Vikki-formerlySean No actually! "If a woman acquires real or personal property before marriage or becomes entitled to **or acquires, after marriage,** real or personal property ... that property is and shall remain the property of the woman and be a part of the woman's estate." – Barry Harrison May 04 '21 at 23:42
  • @ikegami Just want to update you there's been an answer on the Law.SE question – Barry Harrison May 05 '21 at 00:19
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There is a video of a Michigan attorney debunking that claim. While he points out correctly that it is comparatively hard to prove a negative, he has tried to do just that. See the first of the points he raises, below.

In decreasing order of importance:

  • He has personally used the searchable database of Michigan law to get a list of all laws containing the word "hair" — of which there aren't so many. This law is not among them. (Using https://www.legislature.mi.gov/mileg.aspx?page=MCLBasicSearch, a search for "hair" yields 23 entries.)
  • He has read many of such claims and found that none of them cites the specific law, which would be customary and easy to do if it existed. Instead, if any source at all is given it is just another one without reference to an actual law.
  • The law would discriminate by gender. (He doesn't say that, but I suppose it would be unconstitutional for that reason.)
  • Such a law would raise a number of questions in fringe cases (husband missing but not yet declared dead, separated but not divorced etc.) which make it impractical.
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    While it's true that it's hard to prove a negative, you don't really have to do that in most common law systems. There's a concept called [Desuetude](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Desuetude) which means that an unenforced law becomes unenforceable after a long time of unenforcement. In the US, that's not true with federal or state constitutions so the burden of proof is that it's not in the Michigan constitution and that no cases have been have been decided recently on the matter. – MiniRagnarok May 03 '21 at 14:43
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    @MiniRagnarok But you have to prove a negative when someone claims "there is a law about X". It's outside the legal system. You're debating a random internet guy who read a tweet, not a judge. – pipe May 03 '21 at 15:31
  • This doesn't require "proving a negative". The Michigan law code is finite and not so large that it can't be searched. The law is either in there (and therefore findable) or it's not (which will be evident after a search). – nerdfever.com May 03 '21 at 18:44
  • @nerdfever.com You would have to read _every_ law and then every case to find how they have been interpreted by a court, since they may not mention "hair" explicitly. Even then your opponent can easily claim that you may have missed one. However, it only takes one case to "prove the positive". That's probably why that attorney is careful with his words. – pipe May 03 '21 at 19:04
  • @nerdfever.com The action you describe, namely going through a body of text and proving that some phrase is not in there, is an example for what is commonly called "proving a negative". You seem to think that that is impossible; but if you had read my answer and watched his video carefully (https://youtu.be/hke7eI1mu88?t=216), you would have noticed that the word "impossible" was never used, and it is not implicit in the term as such for finite search spaces. – Peter - Reinstate Monica May 03 '21 at 19:09
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    `Such a law would raise a number of questions in fringe cases` That's fantastic - please, please tell me that was deliberate. Oh - hang on, does "fringe" not also mean "the front part of a person's hair, cut so as to hang over the forehead" in American English? – Spratty May 04 '21 at 09:32
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    @Spratty No, that's "bangs" in American English. Bad luck. – Kevin Arlin May 04 '21 at 16:05
  • @Peter-ReinstateMonica Some kinds of "proving the negative" - the way the phrase is usually used - are impossible. The classic example is Russell's Teapot (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Russell%27s_teapot). Although to be fair that particular example may have been invalidated by the invention of radar and space travel - but the general point stands. A merely difficult (but not impossible) search would be "needle in a haystack". Cheers. – nerdfever.com May 04 '21 at 20:10
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    Just searching for the word hair in all the various laws doesn't prove that the law doesn't exist. When the law was written different terms could have been used that might not have used the word hair but still impacted cutting of hair. – Joe W May 04 '21 at 21:16
  • Honestly, I think this answer could've taken a different form that pointed out hair isn't personal property (if that's what you believe) and instead that the actual source of this myth is "Unless she had her own money she could not legally enter a contract." I think quoting another lawyer doesn't add too much if another answer quoted lawyers too. I'm ok with this answer, I just feel it's missing out on some of your unique thoughts. – Barry Harrison May 05 '21 at 01:31
  • @JoeW indeed, as pointed out elsewhere, the law might have been more general, forbidding married women to purchase goods or services without their husbands' permission. There are all sorts of possible laws that could have this effect without mentioning "hair." Or maybe there was a law specific to cutting hair that used a synonym for the act, such as "coiffure." – phoog May 06 '21 at 05:50
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This claim has changed over time. It may have originated as a Wisconsin story.

I found some key details in the March 29, 1954 edition of the The Holland Evening Sentinel:

There is a famous case of a husband who sued a barber for cutting his wife's hair . . . and collected.

I further traced this back to June 7, 1946 edition of Asbury Park Press:

Women Not Yet Free, Speaker Tells Club

"You do not have freedom for women today," Mrs. J. Bertram Hervey told members of the Ocean Grove Woman's Club ... As an example, Mrs. Hervey cited the case of a Wisconsin woman who decided to get her hair cut short. Her husband was displeased, sued the barber and won the case because there was an old law still in existence saying a wife was owned by her husband, hair included.

According to the Michigan Law Library, another women's rights activist named Emma Guffey Miller also spread this claim.

I cannot find the original legal case, so we shall have to dig into the archives of Aleene L. Hervey or Emma Guffey Miller.

Avery
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