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It's pretty common to hear that the bible condemn homosexuality, I've seen many references to versus. However, there is a good amount of debate as to which verses are actually speaking specifically about homosexuality.

My question then, are there passages in the bible that explicitly, and without ambiguity or extrapolation, state that homosexual relationships are sinful.

I'm looking passage(s) which either directly quote god/Jesus or are statements from someone who is speaking for God as a proxy, in other words the statement is one that can reasonable be believed to be supported by God, not just personal opinion of the speaker. The passage must reference actual sexual relationship between same sex individuals, and must state that god considers it a sin or something worthy of punishment.

Ambiguity due to translation from Hebrew to English seem to be common throughout the bible. I don't expect an answer to prove that the English statement is an accurate translation, since that requires too much research for skeptics and besides which would effectively be asking to prove a negative. However, ideally an answerer will at least attempt to check for any known debates over potential mistranslations for a particular verse before using it as evidence.

I'm pretty sure I know the the answer, but I've not seen a source without an obvious bias tackle the question, so lets see if this turns out to be more complicated then I expect.

While not required at all for the answer, since it's possible to refute the allegation without it, I would appreciate it if an answerer would at least mention rather a given passage is from old or new testament; owing to the fact that some Christians place different weight on the New vs Old Testament. I'm interested in rather passages exist in both testaments.

Christian
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dsollen
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    1) When you say relationships, do you mean sex? If yes, there's a passage in Leviticus that is only slightly euphemistic about banning male-male sex (though critics point out, *many* modern Christians overlook many other rules in Leviticus). But it says nothing directly about non-sex romance, or female-female 2) When you say the bible, do you include Paul's letters? Theologians differ on whether these have holy authority, or are simply "translator's notes" – user56reinstatemonica8 Dec 11 '15 at 17:45
  • @user568458 I beleive my clarification made the definition of 'relationship' relatively clear. I specifically say sexual relationship. I chose not to clarify what constituted 'sexual' to leave it open to any act that could be read as sexual...do you feel I have not sufficiently defined the sexual relationship already? – dsollen Dec 11 '15 at 18:02
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    @user568458 I had thought, vaguely, of Paul's letters. I'm not a theologian at all, my general understanding of his letters would put him as not speaking as a proxy and thus not including them as valid source; but I'm not sure I'm informed enough to make such a ruling. I'm inclined to leave that ambiguous and see if the answer feels the need to address his letters. As to the part about female-female; I started to ask specifically about lesbianism, but decided to ask this more general question first, then follow up on lesbianism depending on answer here; so It will be addressed eventually :) – dsollen Dec 11 '15 at 18:05
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    Perhaps better asked at: http://christianity.stackexchange.com/? – Will Dec 11 '15 at 18:30
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    I'm voting to close this question as off-topic because this is about religious interpretation, not skepticism. – DJClayworth Dec 11 '15 at 18:46
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    The answer to this is going to depend on your interpretation of the Bible. There are passages that on the face of it condemn homosexuality in the context in which they are given. Some people believe they were intended only to forbid a subset of homosexual relations, and other people believe they were not universally applicable. There isn't goin g to be a clear cut definitive answer to this. – DJClayworth Dec 11 '15 at 18:49
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    See [this existing question on the Christianity site.](http://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/121/what-does-the-bible-say-about-homosexuality) – DJClayworth Dec 11 '15 at 18:50
  • The question is also answered in the link given in the question, so it isn't clear what the question is actually asking. –  Dec 11 '15 at 18:56
  • My intent is to avoid the religious interpretation and have skepticism!! all religious sources include significant bias which makes it quite difficult to judge rather the information provided is a valid source. I am looking to avoid religion entirely and look at the bible as a historical document to see the purely literal words. – dsollen Dec 11 '15 at 19:11
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    @dsollen You can't avoid religious interpretation. You can point to passages in the Bible that, on a simple reading, promote animal sacrifice; slavery; prostitution;genocide;etc. Does it actually mean they are OK to do in the present day? No it doesn't. But you have to read the whole of the book to find out, not just pick out isolated passages. – DJClayworth Dec 11 '15 at 19:25
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    @dsollen does having a skeptical interpretation of the bible have any effect on our interpretation of reality? So what if the bible explicitly forbids homosexuality. The bible itself isn't an authority. – JasonR Dec 11 '15 at 21:00
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    @DJClayworth, no one is saying they are OK to do in the present day. THE OP simply wants to know if the bible condemns homosexuality, and yes it does. Also, as you mention, it promotes slavery. – George Chalhoub Dec 12 '15 at 10:19
  • @GeorgeChalhoub The linked claim clearly specifies that translations and reading in context are important. The question asks for a literal passage, however this is a straw man argument. No one seems to dispute that. – Sklivvz Dec 16 '15 at 02:18
  • @GeorgeChalhoub It would be more accurate to say that the Bible condemns men having sex with men, in Leviticus 18:22, 20:13, and probably three passages in the New Testament (which are a matter of interpretive debate). The modern concept of *homosexuality* is harder to pin down, since it involves *same-sex sexual attraction,* which is not necessarily the same as the sexual *behavior* that the Bible condemns. That's why there is debate on whether the Bible does or does not condemn "homosexuality." The word "homosexual" does not occur in the Bible in the original languages. – Lee Woofenden Apr 06 '16 at 00:44
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    It might also be worth browsing the questions with the [homosexuality](http://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/homosexuality) tag on Christianity.SE. – Lee Woofenden Apr 06 '16 at 00:45

2 Answers2

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Yes, the Bible explicitly and clearly forbids homosexuality, in the Old and New Testament. Those are the passages:

Leviticus 20:13:

If a man has sexual relations with a man as one does with a woman, both of them have done what is detestable. They are to be put to death; their blood will be on their own heads.

Leviticus 18:22:

Do not practice homosexuality, having sex with another man as with a woman. It is a detestable sin.

1 Timothy 1:9-10:

understanding this, that the law is not laid down for the just but for the lawless and disobedient, for the ungodly and sinners, for the unholy and profane, for those who strike their fathers and mothers, for murderers, 10 the sexually immoral, men who practice homosexuality, enslavers, liars, perjurers, and whatever else is contrary to sound doctrine.

1 Corinthians 6:9-10:

Or do you not know that wrongdoers will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: Neither the sexually immoral nor idolaters nor adulterers nor men who have sex with men[a] 10 nor thieves nor the greedy nor drunkards nor slanderers nor swindlers will inherit the kingdom of God.

[a] The words men who have sex with men translate two Greek words that refer to the passive and active participants in homosexual acts.

So far, as you see, the Bible is condemning gay sex, it is nowhere condemning lesbianism. But some Bible sources say that Romans 1:26-28: could put lesbianism on equal ground with male homosexuality:

Romans 1:26-28:

Because of this, God gave them over to shameful lusts. Even their women exchanged natural sexual relations for unnatural ones. In the same way the men also abandoned natural relations with women and were inflamed with lust for one another. Men committed shameful acts with other men, and received in themselves the due penalty for their error. Furthermore, just as they did not think it worthwhile to retain the knowledge of God, so God gave them over to a depraved mind, so that they do what ought not to be done.

While others (especially Christians) will try to explain otherwise or spin the verses, do not be deceived or manipulated; it is crystal clear that the Bible condemns male homosexuality, and probably female homosexuality. Matt Slick, the President and Founder of the Christian Apologetics and Research Ministry, also admits it:

The Bible doesn't speak of homosexuality very often. But when it does, it condemns it as sin.

GotQuestions.org, a volunteer ministry of dedicated and trained servants who have a desire to assist others in their understanding of God, also says it is clear that the bible condemns it:

The Bible is consistent through both Old and New Testaments in confirming that homosexuality is sin (Genesis 19:1–13; Leviticus 18:22; 20:13; Romans 1:26–27; 1 Corinthians 6:9; Jude 1:7). In this matter, the New Testament reinforces what the Old Testament had declared since the Law was given to Moses (Leviticus 20:13). The difference between the Old and New Testaments is that the New Testament offers hope and restoration to those caught up in the sin of homosexuality through the redeeming power of Jesus.

George Chalhoub
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  • It's worth mentioning that all of the New Testament examples are from Paul's letters, not from the gospels or Jesus's letters. Most Christians have historically considered these to be part of the "New Testament canon", but it's a [much debated question with no definitive answer](http://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/6627/) as to what exact status they have - ranging from, simply a notable figure's wise opinions (like a guest editor's commentary), through to being assumed to being directly divinely inspired. – user56reinstatemonica8 Dec 11 '15 at 21:27
  • Leviticus' status is even more controversial, with very many of its rules routinely not followed ([example](http://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/30)) and not taught as rules to be followed by almost any modern church – user56reinstatemonica8 Dec 11 '15 at 21:29
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    You just copied everything from my answer and added it as your own. – mike glenndale Dec 12 '15 at 23:22
  • @mikeglenndale what? No man, those verses were found from the result of my google search. – George Chalhoub Dec 13 '15 at 00:01
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    Note, though, that this only applies to men. Women, it seems, are free to do what they want. – WhatRoughBeast Dec 15 '15 at 16:25
  • Romans 1:26-27 puts this invalid assumption to rest. – George Chalhoub Dec 15 '15 at 16:33
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    These are rather free translations. The word "homosexuality" does not occur in the original languages of the Bible. The language is more concrete, referring to sex between men, and those who practice it, which is not necessarily the same as today's concept and definition of homosexuality as having a *sexual attraction* to someone of the same sex. In ancient times, even heterosexual men engaged in homosexual sex under certain circumstances, for example, as a demonstration of dominance over the soldiers of defeated armies. This sort of thing is not unknown even today. – Lee Woofenden Apr 06 '16 at 00:54
  • @user568458: There is no such thing as the letters of Jesus. – JacquesB Oct 25 '16 at 21:32
  • @LeeWoofenden: The NIV translate Lev 18:22 as "Do not have sexual relations with a man as one does with a woman; that is detestable". But I think "Do not practice homosexuality" is a fair way to paraphrase, since that phasing still describes an act and not necessarily a "sexual orientation" in the modern sense. – JacquesB Oct 25 '16 at 21:41
  • @JacquesB Yeah I meant to say "Jesus's teachings" but re-typed "letters" by mistake and didn't notice until after the 5 minute comment edit period expired. – user56reinstatemonica8 Oct 26 '16 at 00:01
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Yes it does, in many places. Some examples from NLT translation:

Leviticus 18:22

"Do not practice homosexuality, having sex with another man as with a woman. It is a detestable sin."

Leviticus 20:13

"If a man practices homosexuality, having sex with another man as with a woman, both men have committed a detestable act. They must both be put to death, for they are guilty of a capital offense."

1 Corinthians 6:9-11

Don't you realize that those who do wrong will not inherit the Kingdom of God? Don't fool yourselves. Those who indulge in sexual sin, or who worship idols, or commit adultery, or are male prostitutes, or practice homosexuality, or are thieves, or greedy people, or drunkards, or are abusive, or cheat people-none of these will inherit the Kingdom of God. Some of you were once like that. But you were cleansed; you were made holy; you were made right with God by calling on the name of the Lord Jesus Christ and by the Spirit of our God.

There are also passages where God-fearing rulers outlaw male prostitution, or destroy places where male (and female) prostitution takes place, but those do not match your criteria. Sodom and Gomorrah were destroyed due to widespread sexual perversion, but it's not as "directly" stated as in the passages I quoted.

Oddthinking
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mike glenndale
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    The NLT is more of an interpretation than a translation. In particular, the word "homosexuality" does not occur in Leviticus, or indeed, anywhere in the original languages of the Bible. – Lee Woofenden Apr 06 '16 at 00:56