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The American newspaper the Washington Post's PostEverything Op-Ed One way to end violence against women? Married dads. (previously titled "One way to end violence against women? Stop taking lovers and get married") claims that marriage plays a causative role in preventing violence against women, and their children.

This social media outpouring makes it clear that some men pose a real threat to the physical and psychic welfare of women and girls. But obscured in the public conversation about the violence against women is the fact that some other men are more likely to protect women, directly and indirectly, from the threat of male violence: married biological fathers. The bottom line is this: Married women are notably safer than their unmarried peers, and girls raised in a home with their married father are markedly less likely to be abused or assaulted than children living without their own father.

This includes domestic violence:

Women are also safer in married homes. As the figure above (derived from a recent Department of Justice study) indicates, married women are the least likely to be victimized by an intimate partner. They are also less likely to be the victims of violent crime in general. Overall, another U.S. Department of Justice study found that never-married women are nearly four times more likely to be victims of violent crime, compared to married women. The bottom line is that married women are less likely to be raped, assaulted, or robbed than their unmarried peers.

Does getting married play a causative role (and not just a correlation) against violence against women and children?

With regards to whether the op-ed is talking about mere correlation, or actual correlation.

The title implies causation. It has a question of "One way to end violence against women?", and then the answer "Married dads."

The blurb underneath talks about causation, not correlation: "The data show that #yesallwomen would be safer with fewer boyfriends around their kids."

And from the body itself:

  • some other men are more likely to protect women, directly and indirectly, from the threat of male violence: married biological fathers
  • But marriage also seems to cause men to behave better.
  • the research tells us that marriage provides a measure of stability and commitment to the adults’ relationship
  • So, women: if you’re the product of a good marriage, and feel safer as a consequence

In fairness to the article, there is some mention of factors that cause marriage causing a reduction of violence.

For women, part of the story is about what social scientists call a “selection effect,” namely, women in healthy, safe relationships are more likely to select into marriage, and women in unhealthy, unsafe relationships often lack the power to demand marriage or the desire to marry. Of course, women in high conflict marriages are more likely to select into divorce.

However, just because it mentions correlation in some parts doesn't mean that it isn't implying causation in the rest of the Op-Ed.

In addition, would it make sense to write an entire Op-Ed that is purely about a non-causative correlation?

rjzii
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Andrew Grimm
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    Sounds like selection bias – HappySpoon Jun 11 '14 at 00:53
  • Looking only at the sections you have quoted (I confess to not having read the article), I don't see a claim of causation, only correlation (although the headlines are suggestive). If the article (or someone else) makes a causation claim, can we quote it? If not, can we change the question itself only to ask whether there is a correlation? – Oddthinking Jun 11 '14 at 04:15
  • @Oddthinking The section "some other men are more likely to protect women, directly and indirectly, from the threat of male violence: married biological fathers" at least sounds like causation, not correlation, to me. – Andrew Grimm Jun 11 '14 at 05:16
  • @Artucino: I agree that the headline is the most suggestive part. I note that it contains a question mark, which is reasonable. Aside: headlines tend to to be written by sub-editors, not the journalist, so they sometimes overstep. – Oddthinking Jun 11 '14 at 06:01
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    _For women, part of the story is about what social scientists call a “selection effect,” namely, women in healthy, safe relationships are more likely to select into marriage, and women in unhealthy, unsafe relationships often lack the power to demand marriage or the desire to marry._ As I said above, sounds like selection bias. – HappySpoon Jun 11 '14 at 06:28
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    @HappySpoon I skimmed the article on [Selection bias](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Selection_bias) on Wikipedia. What you're describing doesn't sound like selection bias. If anything, it may be [confounding](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Confounding). Are you sure that you mean "selection bias"? – Andrew Grimm Jun 11 '14 at 11:07
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    @AndrewGrimm Pretty sure. From WP _self-selection bias arises in any situation in which individuals select themselves into a group, causing a biased sample with nonprobability sampling._ which is what is suspected here. – HappySpoon Jun 11 '14 at 11:14
  • @HappySpoon I assume you're quoting http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Self-selection_bias . But that article is talking about some people being more likely to feature in a study than other people, which is totally unrelated to this OpEd. – Andrew Grimm Jun 11 '14 at 11:54
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    Off hand, I suspect that this might be one of those complicated topics that are going to be hard to really come up with a solid explanation for. Off the top of my head another reason why the figures could be lower for married women is because they aren't actively dating and expose themselves to more strangers who could be potential threats. – rjzii Jun 11 '14 at 12:40
  • Also, comments saying how hard this question will be to answer are not relevant. If that is true, this question will simply go unanswered –  Jun 11 '14 at 15:04
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    It seems implicit that the claim relates to the United States of America, but the answer might very well depend on socio-cultural region of the world. – gerrit Jun 11 '14 at 15:34
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    Not a complete answer, but a fivethirtyeight [article](http://fivethirtyeight.com/datalab/the-washington-post-misused-the-data-on-violence-against-women/) discusses how a study cited in the OpEd was misused. It includes quotes from the study's author saying that her study was being used without sufficient context. – KAI Jun 11 '14 at 17:45
  • @KAI, thanks for the link. the article provided a link to the author's supplementary report that had the same findings as OpEd piece. – user1873 Jun 13 '14 at 17:44
  • I wonder if there's a correlation to women who don't get married due to personality or other deterrents to men and the violent crime statistics.... – Anoplexian Apr 29 '16 at 17:04
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    Is the op-ed contention that if you take a guy who, while single, beats the snot out of his girlfriend and kids on a nightly basis, and hand him a marriage license with his name on it, or make him stand at the front of a church while a minister says the right words, that the beatings will magically stop? My guess would be that mates who don't beat their supposed loved ones will, in general, be considered better "marriage material" that someone will want to formally and legally commit to. Sounds like classic cause/correlation screw-up. – PoloHoleSet Oct 05 '17 at 18:36

2 Answers2

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No, there is no conclusive evidence that getting married prevents violence against women and children.

It is true that there is a correlation between cohabitation (living together without being married) and violence in relationships. This correlation has been shown in a number of studies. See for example Extent, Nature, and Consequences of Intimate Partner Violence.

However, there is no conclusive evidence that one is the cause of the other. Conclusive statistical evidence will of course be hard to find, because randomization (let alone blinding) is impossible, and without that the direction of the cause-effect relation is impossible to tell - does getting married help to prevent violence, or does not being violent help getting married? Also, there is no convincing explaination why marriage could prevent violence.

While some claim that:

Marriage also seems to cause men to behave better. That’s because men tend to settle down after they marry, to be more attentive to the expectations of friends and kin, to be more faithful, and to be more committed to their partners—factors that minimize the risk of violence.

(from the WP article in the question)

there are also opposing claims:

[...] differences in selection out of cohabitation and marriage, including selection of the least-violent cohabiting couples into marriage and the most-violent married couples into divorce, lead to higher observed rates of violence among cohabiting couples in cross-sectional samples.

Our results suggest that researchers should be cautious when making comparisons between married and cohabiting couples in which the dependent variable of interest is related to selection into and out of relationship status.

(Why are cohabiting relationships more violent than marriages?, PMID: 16579211, emphasis mine).

sleske
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Yes, married parents lowers the risk of violence against women and children.

From the Bureau of Justice Statistics on which the study was based, a correlation in family status and intimate partner violence was indicated. Married females had a much lower victimization rate.

In 2010, the rate of intimate partner violence against females living in households comprised of married adults with children was lower than those of households with one female only. The rate of female intimate partner violence in 2010 among households comprised of one female adult with children (31.7 victimizations per 1,000 females age 12 or older) was more than 10 times higher than the rate for females in households with married adults with children (2.5 per 1,000), and more than 6 times higher than the rate for those in households with one female adult only (4.6 per 1,000).

This particular study did not perform any sort of regression analysis, so causal inferences shouldn't be made from those particular results. Luckily, the study’s author, Shannon Catalano, did perform such analysis. After the logistical regression, their analysis found that:

Results of the logistic regression for women, but not men, support previous research that shows unmarried couples are at greater risk of intimate partner violence than married couples, and African-American couples are at greater risk than white couples.

Similar findings are found in other studies. The fourth release of the National Incidence Study of Child Abuse and Neglect (NIS-4), 2004-2009 had similar findings. In the NIS-4 marital status is highly correlated with abuse.

Abuse. The rate of Harm Standard abuse for children living with two married biological parents (2.9 children per 1,000) is significantly lower than the rate for children living in all other conditions of family structure and living arrangement (10.2 or more children per 1,000). Again, the highest rate was among children living with just one parent and that parent’s unmarried partner (33.6 per 1,000 children). The rates in the highest and lowest risk groups differ by more than a factor of 11.

In their supplementary analysis, they examine the independent variables and their effect on abuse.

The finding that family structure relates to risk of child maltreatment is not new. Nearly two decades ago, Wilson, Daly, and Weghorst (1980) reported increased risk for children living in households with a parent and a surrogate parent (whether stepparent or cohabiting partner) compared to children in mother-only households.

White children had a notably higher probability of maltreatment when they lived with married parents who were not both biologically related to them and a slightly higher maltreatment rate when they lived with a single parent who had no cohabiting partner, whereas Black children had a considerably higher maltreatment probabilities when they lived with their unmarried parents and when they lived with a single parent living with a partner. [...]

user1873
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    The phrasing of your first sentence makes it sound like you are claiming a causal relationship, which the sources you cite explicitly do not do. – Nate Eldredge Jun 13 '14 at 16:31
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    @NateEldredge, yes the first sentence is claiming a causal relationship. The sources I cited explicitly support a causal relationship. In observational studies, where it is impossible to run experimental random controlled studies on a variable (family structue in this case), logistical regression is often used to show a causal relationship. (For example, smoking is a known cause of lung cancer. Smokers have been found to have a 10x-22x greater risk of lung cancer than never smokers. They arrived at this conclusion by logistical regression, not randomly assigning people to (non)/smoking groups) – user1873 Jun 13 '14 at 17:35
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    I don't see how regression analysis can defeat the self-selection problem here. It's not like smoking where choosing to smoke has nothing to do with your natural propensity towards lung cancer. – Loren Pechtel Jun 13 '14 at 23:51
  • @LorenPechtel, you cannot defeat the self-selection problem with race, or number of children, or sex of the children, or socioeconomic status. Do those variables not affect a woman/child's natural propensity to be abused? I am not sure I understand your objection. You just do not believe in regression analysis as a means to minimize the [self-selection problem](http://sfb649.wiwi.hu-berlin.de/fedc_homepage/xplore/tutorials/xlghtmlnode71.html) (I.e. you only trust random controlled experiments) – user1873 Jun 14 '14 at 00:30
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    @user1873 The self-selection is from whether she chooses to marry him or not. – Loren Pechtel Jun 14 '14 at 03:28
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    none of these do anything to discredit the "selection effect" and the selection effect discredits all of these. – puser Jun 17 '14 at 13:22
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    @puser, only randomized controlled trials would, but that isn't possible. Even if you could perform RCT, you [couldn't prove cause](http://www.phi.org/uploads/application/files/okk1924l90qlgx0qbqt9ugdcs0u2mhmwostb7f5n9vegrh0v06.pdf), " None of my nine [criteria] can bring indisputable evidence for or against the cause‐and‐effect hypothesis and none can be required as a sine qua non." **We cannot know if the cause of domestic abuse is women choose to select themselves into bad live-in boyfriends, not marry baby daddies, or something else.** We can only show increased risk – user1873 Jun 17 '14 at 14:15
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    @user1873 Correlation is not, and has never been causation. You can't claim a causal effect just because you don't have a better answer. There are serious negative moral implications to controlled tests that deliberately create an environment to dis/encourage domestic violence. And you're likely right. Marriage is a big deal to people so asking for volunteers probably does have strong selection bias, but it's the only way to mitigate the morality concern. Studying this is not an easy thing. And you STILL don't get declare that one causes the other until you do. Welcome to Skeptics. – InfernalRapture Aug 05 '14 at 14:27
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    @InfernalRapture, it is a good thing that multiple studies after controlling for other variables (social economic status, education, race, etc.) all came to the same conclusion, **familial status** has a predictive effect on whether a woman and her children are at risk of domestic violence. So when smoking has a 10x-20x greater risk of developing lung cancer and living with your boyfriend has a 11x greater risk of domestic violence, keep telling people to smoke and shack-up. – user1873 Aug 05 '14 at 14:55
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    @user1873 Yes but it doesn't demonstrate cause, it demonstrates a relationship. That's the point I was getting at. – InfernalRapture Aug 05 '14 at 14:57
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    @user1873 _"familial status has a predictive effect on whether a woman and her children are at risk of domestic violence"_ How can you know it's not the opposite, that exposure to domestic violence has a predictive effect on familial status? It seems equally plausible (e.g.) for women who are subjected to domestic violence to be less inclined to marry their (abusive) boyfriend. We can't know for certain which is the cause and which is the effect unless we have accurate data on the frequency of domestic violence before/after marriage, which is notoriously hard to get an accurate read on. – Flater Oct 02 '17 at 13:24
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    @Flater There's a third option: that neither causes the other and there are additional variables involved. – JAB Oct 02 '17 at 14:52
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    @JAB: I didn't mean to imply that it was one of the two options, I just wanted to present a counterexample to their assertion :) Fully agree with your third option. – Flater Oct 02 '17 at 14:54