I have two sets of ESXi hosts, one set for management and one for tenants. Each ESXi host has 8 nics and four vSwitches. All vSwitches are trunked via aggregated interfaces to a pair of EX in VC mode.
I only have one ISP connection with a network allocation (/28) which is bridged (the ISP provides the gateway that we use)
The EX uplink to the Sonic is ge-0/0/20, a trunked port for 5 VLANs: (10, 20, 30, 60, and ‘default/untagged’ vlan). The rest of the VLAN's are internal traffic, unrouted, no gateway.
I need to have direct internet connection on VLAN 60 (not NAT). I have setup a RVI on the switch, vlan.60 as per http://kb.juniper.net/InfoCenter/index?page=content&id=KB11000&actp=RSS
The Sonicwall supports “L2 Bridge Mode” so I can bridge my ISP connection (now connected @ X1 port) to the X0 port. They say on their KB that this way, you can effectively span your WAN subnet and insert the Sonicwall “transparently”: http://www.firewalls.com/blog/transparent_mode_or_bridge_mode/
If I bridge X0 to X1, I will only have a public interface for the sonicwall, I won't be able to use it's current LAN IP 10.0.14.254
Can I then assign my entire WAN subnet on my l3-interface of vlan.60 ? And, do I need to set the native-vlan-id of my ge-0/0/20 uplink to VLAN 60 ?
The Sonicwall is connected to EX ge-0/0/20 (gigabit port) through X0 and to the me0.0 ('vme') port through X3. ![Topology][1]
Topology: i.stack.imgur.com/Ijzw2.png