We have a new MPLS service and I'm having trouble getting it to work (it seems like a routing issue). It's a T3 with two circuits: a public wan port and a private MPLS circuit connecting 2 sites. Each site has its own subnet and a gateway router before the MPLS endpoint. The carrier assures me that the MPLS link is working correctly.
Site A:
subnet 192.168.2.0
gateway 192.168.2.1
MPLS gateway 192.168.2.254
WAN iface 216.xxx.xxx.xxx
On the carrier's router facing me are 2 ports:
WAN (public internet) port is connected to my gateway's WAN port
MPLS port is plugged into a port on the ethernet switch behind my gateway (actually, it's the builtin 8port switch on the gateway)
Site B: configured exactly the same except the subnet is different..
subnet 192.168.1.0
gateway 192.168.1.1
MPLS gateway 192.168.1.254
WAN iface 209.xxx.xxx.xxx
routes defined:
site A:
dest 0.0.0.0 mask 255.255.255.0 gw 216.xxx.xxx.xxx iface WAN1
dest 192.168.1.0 mask 255.255.255.0 gw 192.168.2.254 hop 2 iface LAN
site B:
dest 0.0.0.0 mask 255.255.255.0 gw 209.xxx.xxx.xxx iface wan1
dest 192.168.2.0 mask 255.255.255.0 gw 192.168.1.254 hop 2 iface LAN
Any node on site A can ping 192.168.2.254 AND .1.254 but NOT any other IP on the .1.0 subnet
Any node on site B can ping 192.168.1.254 but NOT .2.254 OR any IP on the .2.0 subnet
Internet traffic is fine in both locations.
I feel like I have my fundamentals right, but I'm not making any progress. Did I miss something important? Or am I asking it to do something it should not be able to do?