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I notice a lot of our users are replying to our automated noreply email with actual questions that should've been sent to either of our offices. This does not include the client's autoreply software (which is also a big chunk)

I figured I'd disable incoming email to all noreply accounts in our inbox. Right now if you email us at noreply@domain you'll get 550 email suspended bounce but you will be receiving email from us from that very same email.

Is this considered a bad practice? Will I get into spam/blacklisted for doing this - e.g. sending email from a bouncing inbox?

I guess I could setup automated reply but I've never been a fan of those. Which would be a better route to take

Sk1ppeR
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1 Answers1

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It's not a problem to send mail from addresses that won't accept mail as long as the domain exists. What's important is to use connection-stage rejection instead of generating bounces. This way, the mail server of the sender will generate the Non-Delivery Notification (NDN) instead of your server. Otherwise you'll end up sending backscatter, which any automatic reply would also be. That will eventually get you blacklisted.

You could also use the Reply-To originator field (RFC 5322, 3.6.2) to avoid replies to your noreply@example.com address used in the From header.

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Esa Jokinen
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