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I am new-ish to LDAP, and I am studying now the ACLs ( OlcAccess )

So, on the OpenLDAP Official documentation, I found this example:

access to attrs=userPassword by self =xw by anonymous auth by * none

I was wondering what effect the line "by anonymous auth" has. I really can't grasp an anonymous user trying to authenticate, because if so, they wouldn't be anonymous any more, I guess.

Thanks in advance!

PaulO
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1 Answers1

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The same question was cross-posted on Stack Overflow, and I answered it there.

https://stackoverflow.com/q/61521692

rtandy
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